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 exam 2 mcq

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تاريخ التسجيل : 15/08/2011
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مُساهمةموضوع: exam 2 mcq    الثلاثاء أغسطس 16, 2011 4:19 pm

. The following statement is true about the cornea:
a) it constitutes one fourth of the outer coat of the eye ball

b) its average thickness at the center is 0.5 cm

c) the anterior corneal curvature is greater than the scleral curvature

d) the endothelium can regenerate within 7 days when damaged

...

...




2. Aging can cause all of the following except:

a) diminution of the accommodative power

b) macular degeneration

c) optic disc cupping

d) epiphora




3. The following statement is true regarding a chalazion:

a) usually it is painful

b) usually it should be opened through a skin incision

c) when it is large, it can cause diminution of visual acuity

d) it usually points in front of the gray line




4. In phacomorphic glaucoma:

a) There is a severe pain

b) It responds well to pilocarpine

c) It is usually associated with a deep anterior chamber

d) There is always iridodonesis




5.
A Maddox rod is used in front of the right eye of a patient (cylinders
oriented vertically) while he views a spot light with the left eye. The
patient reported seeing the spot light above the line. This patient is
suffering from:


a) exophoria

b) right hyperphoria

c) esophoria

d) left hyperphoria




6. If a patient presents in your office with a mature cataract, which test would not be helpful in deciding whether the patient should have a cataract surgery?

a) ultrasound

b) color vision testing

c) two-point discrimination

d) fluorescein angiography




7. Sympathetic ophthalmitis:

a) usually responds to adrenaline

b) can be prevented by pilocarpine

c) can be prevented by enucleation

d) can be treated by excision of the superior cervical ganglion




8. Staphylococcal infections in ophthalmology do not include:

a) blepharitis

b) corneal ulcer

c) giant papillary conjunctivitis

d) endophthalmitis




9. Considering the management of ptosis:

a) in paralytic ptosis, surgery should correct the ptosis before the strabismus

b) all congenital unilateral ptosis cases should be operated upon immediately

c) mechanical ptosis necessitates a levator resection surgery

d) frontalis suspension is needed if the levator function is absent




10. Applanation tonometry:

a) can be performed using a Schiotz tonometer

b) must be performed on a sitting patient

c) is inaccurate on eyes with abnormal scleral rigidity

d) is complementary to perimetry




11. A clear zone between the lesion and the limbus is not present in:

a) arcus senilis

b) catarrhal corneal ulcer

c) trachomatous pannus

d) Fleischer's ring




12.
If the refraction of the right eye of a patient is minus two while that
of the left eye is minus nine, the following statements are correct
except:

a) the patient may complain of diplopia if he wears full-correction glasses

b) this diploia is uncrossed

c) his left eye might give the impression of a left convergent deviation

d) the visual acuity of his left eye might not exceed 6/24 even with full correction




13. Causes of localized conjunctival redness include:

a) acute viral conjunctivitis

b) phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis

c) mucopurulent conjunctivitis

d) hay fever




14. Cover uncover test can be of benefit in the following conditions except:

a) diagnosis of esotropia

b) differentiation between unilateral and alternating strabismus

c) diagnosis of suppression

d) differentiation between true and false strabismus




15. The following disease is not associated with field changes:

a) chronic angle closure glaucoma

b) injury of the lateral jeniculate body

c) retinitis pigmentosa

d) ocular hypertension




16. You cannot examine the retinal details by:

a) direct ophthalmoscopy

b) indirect ophthalmoscopy

c) retinoscopy

d) slit lamp




17.
If keratometry revealed a vertical corneal power of 46 diopters and a
horizontal corneal power of 45 diopters while retinoscopy showed that
the patient is emmetropic. The most probable diagnosis is:


a) irregular astigmatism

b) diabetes mellitus

c) lenticular astigmatism

d) pseudophakia




18. All of the following statements about extraocular muscles are true except:

a) the superiors are always intortors

b) the are supplied by the third, fourth and sixth cranial nerves

c) the inferiors are always depressors

d) they become stronger after resection




19. You can have an idea about visual acuity by:

a) Ishihara charts

b) preferential looking

c) retinoscopy

d) Maddox rod




20.
A 70-year old woman complains of chronic tearing and discharge.
Irrigation of the lower canaliculus produces a mucopurulent
regurgitation from the upper canaliculus after distending the lacrimal
sac. Which of the following statements is true?


a) Jones one testing will reveal dye in the nose

b) there is probably a common canalicular obstruction

c) this condition is usually cured permanently by antibiotics

d) DCR is the treatment of choice




21. A patient complains of a sudden onset of double vision when looking to the right. A probable diagnosis is:

a) right medial rectus paralysis

b) left orbital floor fracture

c) right recurrent pterygium

d) right total third nerve palsy




22. Fluorescein does not offer help to diagnose:

a) corneal ulcers

b) leaking phacoemulsification incision

c) nasolacrimal duct obstruction

d) rhegmatogenous retinal detachment




23. The following statement about visual impairment caused by cataract is false:

a) "second sight" is caused by lenticular myopia and improves near vision

b) mild posterior subcapsular cataracts never cause visual symptoms

c) nuclear cataract impairs reading more than cortical cataract

d) cataract can cause polyopia




24. All of the following tests are useful in evaluating a patient with a retained iron intraocular foreign body except:

a) ultrasonography

b) CT scan

c) MRI

d) indirect ophthalmoscopy




25. Indications for lens removal include all but one of the following:

a) phacomorphic glaucoma

b) phacoantigenic uveitis

c) anterior dislocation of the lens

d) posterior dislocation of the lens




26.
A 20-year old man has a pair of glasses; one is plus two in both eyes
for distance and the other is plus five in both eyes for reading. The
most probable diagnosis of his refractive condition is:


a) hyperopia with presbyopia

b) hyperopia

c) pseudophakia

d) emmetropia with presbyopia




27. The following conditions can lead to enophthalmos except:

a) trauma

b) Horner's syndrome

c) rhabdomyosarcoma

d) senility




28. The most important differentiating manifestation between acute iridocyclitis and acute angle closure glaucoma is:

a) circum-corneal redness

b) diminution of visual acuity

c) size of the pupil

d) age of onset




29. All of the following statements are true about tractional retinal detachment except:

a) it may be caused by trauma

b) the treatment is always medical c) there is always a pathology in the vitreous

d) diabetes is the most common cause




30. All of the following conditions can lead to optic atrophy except:

a) severe anemia




b) intracranial tumors

c) multiple sclerosis

d) age-related macular degeneration




31. In retinitis pigmentosa:

a) ultrasonography is of a great help in the diagnosis




b) visual acuity usually diminishes due to secondary optic atrophy

c) it most commonly leads to symptoms after the age of 60

d) it may lead to complicated cataract




32. Retinoblastoma can be managed by all of the following except:

a) enucleation

b) evisceration

c) exenteration

d) cryotherapy




33. The following statement about diabetes mellitus is false:

a) it can be complicated by strabismus

b) the ophthalmic complications are cured by blood sugar reduction

c) its effect on the retina is cumulative

d) phacoemulsification is preferred to extracapsular cataract extraction in a diabetic




34. The cornea receives laser in all of the following procedures except:

a) PRK

b) LASIK

c) PRP

d) PTK




35. A refractive error of minus two in the vertical meridian and minus three in the horizontal meridian can be corrected by:

a) sphere minus three

b) cylinder minus one at axis 90

c) sphere minus two and cylinder minus one at axis 180

d) LASIK




36. The following statement is false regarding total vitreous hemorrhage:

a) there is diminution of visual acuity

b) ultrasonography is important for diagnosis

c) retinoscopy shows a bright red reflex

d) most cases are due to proliferative diabetic retinopathy




37. All of the following conditions can result in amblyopia except:

a) congenital cataract of the right eye

b) alternating esotropia

c) left total congenital ptosis

d) cigar smoking




38. In regular astigmatism, light rays focus into:

a) multiple points

b) a focal line in front of or behind the retina

c) two focal lines

d) a focal line perpendicular to the retina




39. Iridodonesis is seen in all of the following conditions except:

a) aphakia

b) shrunken hyper mature cataract

c) subluxated lens

d) iridodialysis




40. Horner's syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:

a) miosis

b) widened palpebral fissure

c) slight enophthalmos

d) unilateral absence of sweating




41. The following condition does not cause exposure keratitis:

a) facial nerve palsy

b) proptosis

c) Grave's disease

d) levator muscle palsy




42. The following are the clinical presentations of herpes simplex keratitis except:

a) superficial punctate keratitis

b) dendritic keratitis

c) central single ulcer with satellite lesions

d) disciform keratitis




43. Reasons to use atropine in acute iridocyclitis does not include that it:

a) dilates the pupil and thus breaks any recent synechiae

b) paralyses the ciliary muscle and thus gives rest to the ciliary body

c) prevents the formation of synechiae

d) keeps the IOP at normal by opening the canal of Schlemm




44. Band shaped keratopathy is seen in the:

a) upper part of the cornea

b) interpalpebral part of the cornea

c) lower part of the cornea

d) peripheral parts of the cornea




45. The myopic change in the refractive state of the eye in nuclear sclerosis can be attributed to:

a) increase in the curvature of the lens

b) anterior displacement of the iris lens diaphragm

c) increase in the refractive index of the nucleus

d) all of the above




46. Pars plana vitrectomy is not indicated in:

a) long standing vitreous hemorrhage

b) tractional retinal detachment

c) central serous retinopathy

d) intraocular foreign body




47. A mydriatic drug in a patient with shallow anterior chamber is dangerous because it can:

a) cause open angle glaucoma

b) precipitate an attack of angle closure glaucoma

c) cause glaucoma inversus

d) cause all of the above




48. The following are signs of retrobulbar hemorrhage except:

a) proptosis

b) chemosis

c) miosis

d) restriction of extraocular movements

49. In acute angle closure glaucoma, the choice of surgery between peripheral iridectomy or filtering operation is decided by:

a) level of IOP

b) indirect ophthalmoscopy

c) gonioscopy

d) the condition of the other eye




50. Pupillary light reflex is affected in all of the following except:

a) occipital lobe lesions

b) optic tract lesions

c) optic chiasm lesions

d) oculomotor nerve lesions
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