-Regarding the development of the eye:
a. Corneal endothelium develops from surface ectoderm
b. The lens develops from endoderm
c. The retinal pigment epithelium develops from a different origin than the neurosensory retina
d. The crystalline lens is vascular during early development
...
2. All is true about the Levator Palpebrae Superioris EXCEPT:
a. It inserts in the upper third of the upper tarsus
b. Main action is elevation of the upper lid
c. Is supplied by the inferior division of the oculomotor nerve
d. Its insertion in the skin is deficient in Asian population
3. In Senile ptosis :
a. Is due to absence of insertion of the levator aponeurosis into the upper tarsus
b. Shows an evident upper lid skin crease in contrast to congenital cases
c. In severe cases a frontalis suspension surgery can be the choice
d. The degree of ptosis can be measured by the margin reflex distance
4. Basal cell carcinoma of the lids:
a. Is commonest in the upper lid and outer canthus
b. Is less common than squamous cell carcinoma of the lids
c. Is kept under observation until growth is documented
d. Histopathology shows pallisading of the cells around the outer edge of the tumor
5. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis:
a. Is caused by adenovirus 3,4 and 7
b. The cornea may show deep stromal infiltrates
c. May be complicated by permanent visual loss
d. Corneal infiltrates, if present, do not affect the visual acuity
6. In a herpetic corneal ulcer
a. Recurrence is uncommon
b. The virus remains dormant in the ciliary ganglion
c. Is treated both with topical as well as systemic antivirals
d. Can lead to perforation and secondary glaucoma
7.
A Maddox rod is placed in front of the left eye of a patient with the
streaks oriented vertically while fixing on a distant white light. The
patient reports seeing a horizontal red line in front of the left eye
and above the white light. The condition may be:
a. Right hyperdeviation
b. Left hyperdeviation
c. Left hypodeviation
d. Right cyclotropia
8. The white line in the lid margin represents:
a. The lash line
b. The submuscular space
c. Orifices of the Meibomian glands
d. Posterior lid margin
9. A pin hole test:
a. Aids in differentiating macular affections from optic nerve lesions
b. Can give a rough idea about the visual acuity
c. Improves vision in uncorrected myopic eyes
d. Is used before cataract surgery to test for potential visual gain after surgery
10. In the event of a lacrimal sac swelling:
a. It presents mainly above the medial palpebral ligament
b. A DCG is used in all such cases
c. DCR is the treatment of choice in all cases
d. A positive regurge of mucopus mostly indicates an infective condition
11. In a 7 years old male child presents to an ophthalmologist for evaluation of the recent occurrence of a right squint associated with headache::
a. The most common type of deviation is a right exotropia
b. Fundus examination is a routine in such cases
c. A brain MRI or a CT is not routinely done
d. Retinoblastoma should be considered in such cases
12.
The following diagram depicts the findings recorded on retinoscopy of
the right eye of a patient done at 66 cm with the working distance
considered in the figure:
-3
-4
a. The patient has an astigmatism with the rule
b. The amount considered for the distance is 1.0 Diopter
c. The final prescription provided there is no cycloplegic used is Sph -4 Cyl -1 Axis 1800
d. The final prescription provided there is no cycloplegic installed is Sph -3 Cyl -1 Axis 90o
13. Regarding Congenital cataract:
a. Presents always at birth
b. Unilateral cases have poorer outcome regarding binocular vision than bilateral cases
c. Installing an IOL of + 19D renders the child emmetropic if surgery is done at 2 years of age
d. The posterior capsule has lesser chances to opacify than in adult eyes
14. In an eye with Primary Open Angle Glaucoma:
a. The first visual field defect is a central scotoma
b. Beta blockers are prescribed after medical consultation
c. The optic disc changes include primarily arterio – venous changes on the disc edge
d. Surgery is the first line in eyes with documented visual field changes
15. In Diabetic Retinopathy:
a. Fluorescein Angiography should be the primary tool in the management of macular edema
b. Panretinal photocoagulation is reserved for eyes showing preretinal haemorrhage
c. Macular edema can be aggravated if cataract surgery is done in such eyes
d. On Fluorescein Angiography, blocked fluorescence only means the presence of retinal haemorrhages
16. In case of orbital cellulitis:
a. Is caused by frontal sinusitis in children
b. Extraocular muscles are freely acting in most directions
c. Level of consciousness is one of the important parameters to be watched for in such cases
d. Systemic antibiotics should be halted until the result of conjunctival cultures arrive
17. Horner’s Syndrome:
a. Is caused by a lesion in the ciliary ganglion
b. Hypochromia of the iris is noted in the fellow eye
c. Can be caused by a lesion in the vicinity of the Internal Carotid Artery
d. Shows anisocoria more in bright light
18. In pupil sparing complete third cranial nerve palsy:
a. Shows ptosis in 20% of cases
b. MRI is a routine in such cases
c. Should be operated upon during the first six months to alleviate diplopia
d. A systemic workup is mandatory
19. Concerning the extraocular muscles:
a. The superior rectus causes elevation in adduction
b. The inferior oblique is an extortor
c. The inferior oblique is supplied by the fourth cranial nerve from the ipsilateral side
d. The lateral rectus inserts closer to the limbus than the medial rectus
20. The most common intraocular tumor in an adult is
a. Malignant melanoma of the choroid
b. Metastatic carcinoma
c. rhabdomyosarcoma
d. pleocytoma
21. Uniocular diplopia is seen in all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Sublaxated lens
b. Iridodialysis
c. Third cranial nerve palsy
d. Incipient cataract
22. In phacomorphic glaucoma:
a. The lens can show immature or mature opacity
b. Is treated mainly by removal of the crystalline lens without Intraocular lens insertion
c. Is due primarily to a angle block
d. Reducing the intraocular pressure should precede any surgical intervention
23. In a patient with hyphema
a. Should be hospitalized until the blood clears
b. Intraocular pressure elevation is more common in sicklers
c. Blood staining of the cornea is a common complication
d. Miotics should be installed together with complete bed rest
24. A left homonymous hemianopia may be caused by which of the following:
a. A lesion of the optic chiasm
b. A lesion of the right occipital lobe
c. An attack of migraine
d. Occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery
25. In Giant Papillary conjunctivitis
a. Could be caused by allergy to prolonged exposure to contact lens material
b. Presents as giant rounded topped papillae of the upper tarsal conjunctiva
c. Corticosteroids drops should only be used after other measures fail
d. In contact lens wearers, the main problem is with the excessive movement of the lens when looking up
26. In an eye with a pterygium:
a. There is flattening of the vertical meridian more than the horizontal
b. An incision for its removal should be placed anterior to the head by a few millimeters
c. Chances of recurrence are more with a conjunctival autograft than with bare sclera technique
d. Advancement pattern of a fibrous pterygium is similar to that of a fleshy one
27. In Ocular injuries:
a. Plain X ray is the least investigation ordered in such cases
b. Sympathetic ophthalmia is feared in cases where there extensive iris injury
c. Pure cupper causes sunflower cataract
d. Iron intraocular foreign body enters into chemical combination with cell proteins
28. In a case of keratoconus:
a. The apex of the cone is mostly placed inferonasally
b. Minimal amount of conus can be diagnosed by slit lamp biomicroscopy
c. Keratoplasty is the treatment of choice in cases of hydrops or opaque cornea
d. Keratometry may show a reading of 38D and 40D in some cases
29. Legal blindness according to WHO in relation to best corrected visual acuity (BCVA) is:
a. A BCVA of < 3 / 60 in the worse eye
b. A BCVA of > 6 / 60 in the better eye
c. A BCVA of < 3 / 60 in the better eye
d. A BCVA of < 6 / 60 in the worse eye
30. Adhesion between the bulbar and palpebral conjunctiva is called s:
a. Epiblepharon
b. Ankyloblepharon
c. Symblepharon
d. Anterior synechia
31. In a case with retinitis pigmentosa
a. Autosomal dominant inheritance carries the worst visual prognosis
b. The field defect present is a midperipheral ring scotoma
c. Attenuated retinal vessels is present in 20% of eyes
d. Genetic councelling is of no value in nonconsanguinous marriages
32. In concussion cataract fine tears in the lens capsule occur at:
a. Anterior pole of the lens.
b. The periphery of the lens.
c. The equator of the lens.
d. Posterior pole of the lens.
33. Assessment of visual acuity in a two-year old child can be obtained by:
a. Visually-evoked potential.
b. Preferential looking.
c. Snellen’s distant test type.
d. Opticokinetic nystagmus.
34. The thickness of the macula in diabetic macular oedema can be measured by:
a. Optical Coherence Tomography
b. Topography
c. Fundus Fluorescein Angiography
d. Three dimensional Ultrasonography
35. Enophthalmos is seen in:
a. Orbital tumours
b. Orbital hemorrhage.
c. Fracture of orbital floor.
d. Myopia.
36. All of the following manifestations can be seen in vitamin A deficiency EXCEPT:
a. Bitot’s spots
b. Corneal ulceration
c. Corneal xerosis
d. Corneal hyposthesia.
37. Treatment of central retinal artery occlusion includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Digital massage
b. Paracentesis
c. Retrobulbar Timolol injection
d. CO2 inhalation
38. The pupil in an acute attack of angle closure glaucoma is:
a. Miotic
b. Horizontally ovoid
c. Verically ovoid
d. Festooned
39. Manifestations of paralytic squint include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. False projection
b. A primary angle of deviation which is more than the secondary angle
c. Head tilt
d. Diplopia
40. The following are true about atropine eye drops EXCEPT:
a. Very potent mydriatic cycloplegic agent.
b. Usually used in children below 6 years of age safely.
c. May lead to skin flushing.
d. The effect usually fades after 2 weeks.
41. In Direct Ophthalmoscopy:
a. The fundus is viewed at a distance of 50 cm
b. The size of the optic disc measures around 22.5 mm in diameter
c. Binocularity is minimal with such technique
d. Far periphery of the retina is better examined with this method rather than with indirect ophthalmoscopy
42. Concerning the corneal light reflex:
a. Ideally is placed in the center of each cornea
b. The presence of the reflex on the temporal limbus signifies an exodeviation
c. Is an integral part of the cover uncover test
d. Each mm displacement from the center denotes 4.50 of deviation
43. Of the following causes of secondary glaucoma, which is most resistant to treatment:
a. Phacolytic glaucoma
b. Neovascular glaucoma
c. Steroid induced glaucoma
d. Pigmentary glaucoma
Q 44 & 45 A 45 years old male patient has been struck on his eye by an alleged foreign body while hammering a piece of metal.
44. The first intervention with the case should be:
a. Admit the patient and prepare for a detailed examination in the operating room
b. Ask for an urgent MRI
c. Examine the patient on the slit lamp for a probable wound of entry
d. Prescribe some antibiotic drops and discharge him from the clinic
45. In the event that an intraocular foreign body is found:
a. Leave this foreign body alone provided its size does not exceed 1 mm
b. Arrange for a vitrectomy procedure and remove the foreign body with a forceps
c. If there is a concomitant traumatic cataract do the cataract surgery first then remove the foreign body later
d. If there is concomitant intraocular infection, start intensive systemic antibiotics
46.
A patient comes complaining that for the last 3 months he changed two
pairs of reading glasses, he denies being diabetic and carries the lab
investigations to prove his statement
a. The patient may have starting cortical cataract
b. He may be a case of open angle glaucoma with central field changes disturbing his reading abilities
c. There could be a paracentral corneal leucoma which has increased in intensity
d. The patient may be on antihypertensive medications
47. All of the following are causes of clarity of the cornea EXCEPT:
a. A non keratinized surface epithelium
b. A low water content of the stroma
c. Myelinated corneal nerves
d. A regular arrangement of the corneal lamellae
48. In a child with leucocoria:
a. Retinoblastoma should be on top of you differential diagnosis list
b. Fundus examination is mandatory in all cases
c. Enucleation is the first line of treatment is any case to obtain a histopathological examination
d. If an ultrasonography shows a calcified mass this would rule out retinoblastoma
49. In a case of thyroid orbitopathy
a. The condition is related to the thyroid function status
b. The involvement of the extraocular muscles is manily in the tendinous parts
c. The most extraocular muscles to get involved are the medial and inferior recti
d. Continuous monitoring of the intraocular pressure is of prime importance in such cases
50. In Congenital Glaucoma:
a. Is more common in females
b. Is unilateral in 35% of cases
c. Axial length can increase in untreated eyes
d. Optic disc cupping occurs later than in eyes with open angle glaucoma
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موضوع: exam 1 mcq 
الثلاثاء أغسطس 16, 2011 4:18 pm
